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NewChemTeache
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I was curious about two things. I just started reading Feynman's QED book this week. He starts by using an analogy of a clock spinning and that determines the direction (which I think is being analogous to the amplitude of the frequency?)
My first question is, as a layperson, what causes the amplitude to change when light hits on a specific angle? Does this have to do with the light interacting with the particles of the surface material?
My second question is, if light in terms of QED is only explicable in terms of particles, can this also explain electrons only existing as particles and never as waves? I don't study QED at a university level, and only have a background in chemistry. In my classes that I took I was always taught about the particle/wave duality. QED changes this idea about light, does this also change that idea about the electrons?
-Rob
My first question is, as a layperson, what causes the amplitude to change when light hits on a specific angle? Does this have to do with the light interacting with the particles of the surface material?
My second question is, if light in terms of QED is only explicable in terms of particles, can this also explain electrons only existing as particles and never as waves? I don't study QED at a university level, and only have a background in chemistry. In my classes that I took I was always taught about the particle/wave duality. QED changes this idea about light, does this also change that idea about the electrons?
-Rob