Finite quantum well, factor of 2*pi seems necessary but why?

Villhelm
Messages
36
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Solve for the allowed energy values E of a finite square quantum well of depth U0 = 25eV, width a = 0.5nm that contains an electron of mass m (I'm presuming that m = 9.11*10^-31kg, the question doesn't indicate a specific value to use).

I'm defining the interior potential to be 0eV (so that the walls are +25eV).
I'm also defining the well as extending over x = [0,a]

Homework Equations


Time-independent schrodinger equation in 1 dimension + some basic DE stuff.

The Attempt at a Solution


Starting from the TISE, I end up with the following:

2 * sqrt(E*U0 - E^2) / (2E - U0)
= tan(sqrt(2*m*E)*a/hbar)

Upto there I'd (apparently) done things correctly. However, when I estimated the value(s) of E which satisfy the equation numerically I did not get the results that were expected. I did the estimation using openoffice spreadsheet. The tan function is using radians.

My first thought was to see if my value assumed for the electron mass was wrong, so I tried multiples in the range m' = [0.5m,2m] just to see what happened to the results and noticed that the higher the value of m', the closer the values of E that solved the equation came to those I was indicated to have gotten. I tried m'=10m and found that it pushes the values of E too far, so I started iterating through some values until I ended up settling down to m'=6.28m which struck me as being 2*pi*m.

The RHS of the equation now looks like:

RHS = tan(sqrt(2*(2*pi)*m*E)*a/hbar)

and results in a reproduction of the given energy values (there are five, approximately at {1.123, 4.461, 9.905, 17.162, 24.782}eV).

I don't understand why this works, however, especially when the 2*pi is inside the square root.
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Using your original equations, I found five solutions close to the ones you listed.

What value are you using for \hbar? The factor of 2π could arise if you're using h instead of \hbar.

Here's a little trick you can use to make evaluating the argument of the tangent a bit easier:

\frac{\sqrt{2mE}}{\hbar}a = \frac{\sqrt{2(mc^2)E}}{\hbar c}a

where c is the speed of light. The mass of the electron is 511000 eV/c2, and the combination \hbar c is equal to 197 eV nm (this is a useful combination to know). If you measure E in eV and a in nm, all the units cancel as you need them to.
 
Last edited:
vela said:
What value are you using for \hbar? The factor of 2π could arise if you're using h instead of \hbar.


I've been using the value \hbar = 6.58 * 10-16 eV.s
Also, for m I was using 9.11 * 10-31kg

I did wonder if maybe I'd messed up with \hbar vs h, but with the 2π inside the square root rather than outside along with \hbar or h made me question that.

I'll use the constant values you've cited and see what I get.

Things seem to work out nicely! Thanks very much.

Incidentally I've just learned a very good lesson from this - I was making assumptions that the values I obtained from the fudge I described above were within reasonable error margins of the values I was given as correct - however I failed to notice that the values were infact _not_ consistent with calculation error because I'd been doing a simple linear interpolation of the value of E which was the root, which was reasonably accurate for the lower E values given the number of digits I was calculating with, but it actually diverged for the higher ones and I hadn't bothered to check more than a glance and just assumed they worked out (why wouldn't they, a factor of 2*pi just _couldn't_ be a coincidence, right?) ...:redface:
 
Last edited:
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top