Why is the acceleration not equal to mg sin(theta) in pure rolling motion?

AI Thread Summary
In pure rolling motion, the acceleration of a cylinder is not equal to mg sin(theta) due to the distribution of forces involved. While friction opposes the component of gravitational force, it also contributes to the rotational motion of the cylinder. This results in a lower acceleration compared to a non-rotating block sliding down an incline, which accelerates at sin(theta). The rolling cylinder's acceleration is calculated to be mgsin(theta)/3, as some of the gravitational force is used for rotation rather than just linear motion. Understanding this balance between translational and rotational dynamics clarifies why the acceleration differs from the expected value.
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Homework Statement
A uniform solid cylinder of mass M rolls without sliding down an incline plane of inclination theeta the frictional force acting on the cylinder is
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General eqns
I know the ans comes out to be mgsintheeta/3 by using f=ma and the torque eqn but my question is as stated in the question the cylinder is in pure rolling hence friction should only try to oppose mgsintheeta so that the accelration does not change hence v remains equal to rw so why is the ans not mg sintheeta
 
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Compare the case of the cylinder rolling with friction, and the case of a non-rotating block sliding with no friction, and the third case of a block sitting on the incline with friction holding it in place.

The two block cases will have easy to calculate answers. The non-friction sliding block comes down with an acceleration of sin theta. The non-sliding block has a frictional force of sin theta.

Now the cylinder is somewhere between these two. It's rolling so it is accelerating. But some of the force is going into turning it, and some into making its center of mass move. So, as it rolls down it will not move as fast as a non-frictional block. And since it is giving away to the friction by rolling, the force of friction won't be as high as the case of the block held in place.
 
Ohhh now i get it thanks man 😊
 
Kindly see the attached pdf. My attempt to solve it, is in it. I'm wondering if my solution is right. My idea is this: At any point of time, the ball may be assumed to be at an incline which is at an angle of θ(kindly see both the pics in the pdf file). The value of θ will continuously change and so will the value of friction. I'm not able to figure out, why my solution is wrong, if it is wrong .
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