I realized that a few minutes after I posted it, my bad!
So we've got [itex]f_{x_k}=kx_x[/itex].
The function [itex]f[/itex] described by this set of partial derivatives should be in the form [itex]f(x_1, x_2, ... , x_n)[/itex], right? So I run into a bit of a snag when we integrate that partial.
If [itex]f_{x_1} = x_1[/itex], then
[itex]f(x_1, x_2, ... , x_n)[/itex] = [itex]\frac{1}{2}x_1^2 + g(x_2, ... x_n)[/itex]
If this is correct, then moving on:
[itex]f_{x_2}=g_{x_2}(x_2, x_3, ... , x_n)[/itex]
Implying:
[itex]g_{x_2}(x_2, x_3, ... , x_n) = 2x_2[/itex], right? And that:
[itex]g(x_2, x_3, ..., x_n) = x_2^2 + h(x_3, x_4, ... , x_n)[/itex]
Well, I did this process over a few times and I'm reaching a definite pattern here, that shows:
[itex]f(x_1, x_2, ... , x_n) = \frac{1}{2}x_1^2 + x_2^2 + \frac{3}{2}x_3^2 + 2x_3^2 + j(x_5, x_6, ... , x_n)[/itex].
Which seems to imply that
[itex]f(x_1, x_2, ... , x_n) = \frac{k}{2}x_k^2 +[/itex] some function of g. Of course, I realize I would have arrived at this exact expression if I had integrated the beginning expression, I just wanted to see where this process would lead me.
Now, an issue arises with the function of g afterwards. Should it be:
[itex]f(x_1, x_2, ... , x_n) = \frac{k}{2}x_k^2 + g(x_{k+1}, x_{k+2}, ... , x_n)[/itex]?
Have we arrived at the solution or is there some compact way to write the function of g? Or have I done it all wrong completely? :P Thanks!