How Can Quantum Mechanics Constants Be Deduced from Average Energy?

greisen
Messages
75
Reaction score
0
Hey,

I have a normalized wave function

PSI = c_1 psi_1(x) + c_2 psi_1(x)

where c_1 and c_2 are constants with the eigenfunctions equal to ground and first excited state. The average energy of the system is pi^2hbar^2/(ma^2) - what can one deduce about the constant and how?

Thanks in advance
 
Physics news on Phys.org
greisen said:
Hey,

I have a normalized wave function

PSI = c_1 psi_1(x) + c_2 psi_1(x)

where c_1 and c_2 are constants with the eigenfunctions equal to ground and first excited state. The average energy of the system is pi^2hbar^2/(ma^2) - what can one deduce about the constant and how?

Thanks in advance

I'm thinking energy expectation value, similar to your problem on creation/anihiliation. What are the eigenenergies of the two states?
 
The particle is in a one dimensional well with V(x) = 0 for o <= x <= a and otherwise it is infinity. Is it a linear combination between the two states ?

Again thanks very much
 
greisen said:
The particle is in a one dimensional well with V(x) = 0 for o <= x <= a and otherwise it is infinity. Is it a linear combination between the two states ?

Again thanks very much
Yes it is a linear combination of states. With orthonormal basis functions and normalized PSI the sum of the squares of the coefficients has to be 1. The products of coefficients times eigenenergies has to be the total energy
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top