How can the existence of the tensor product be proven in Federer's construction?

turiya
Messages
5
Reaction score
0
Hi all,

I was reading the book by Herbert Federer on Geometric Measure Theory and
it seems he proves the existence of the Tensor Product quite differently
from the rest. However it is not clear to me how to prove the existence of the linear map "g" in his construction.

He defines F as the vectorspace consisting of all real valued functions on
V1 x V2 x V3 x V4 ... x Vn which vanish outside some (varying) finite set.
(Here, V1, V2, V3, V4, ... Vn are all vector spaces). Now consider the map
\phi: V1 x V2 x V3 x V4 ... Vn -> F where \phi(v1,v2,v3,...,vn) is the function
with value 1 at (v1,v2,...,vn) and zero elsewhere.

If we let G to be the vector space generated by all elements of two types:
1) \phi(v1,..,vi-1,x,vi+1,..,vn) + \phi(v1,..,vi-1,y,vi+1,..,vn) - \phi(v1,..,vi-1,x+y,vi+1,..,vn)
2) \phi(v1,..,vi-1,cvi,vi+1,..,vn) - c\phi(v1,..,vi-1,vi,vi+1,..,vn) (c is a real number)
then G a sub-space of F.

Now F/G is considered to be the the Tensor product of V1, V2, .. Vn and \mu = r \dot \phi is the n-linear map associated with the Tensor product, where "r" is the quotient map from F to F\G. Ofcourse, the theorem says that for every n-linear map f : V1xV2x..xVn -> W there exists a unique linear map g : F/G -> W such that f = g \dot \mu for any vector space W.

I have tried and searched a lot to prove the existence of such a "g" but to no avail. Most other texts use a different definition of Tensor product and so any help in this is greatly appreciated.

Thanks in advance
Phanindra
 
Physics news on Phys.org
The point is that \{\varphi(v_1,...,v_n)~\vert~v_i\in V_i\} is a basis for F.
So, given a map f:V_1\times...\times V_n\rightarrow W, we can make a map g:F\rightarrow W. It is enough to put g(\varphi(v_1,...,v_n))=f(v_1,...,v_n) and extend this linearly. So, this gives a map g:F\rightarrow W.

Now, it suffices to show that g(G)=\{0\}. Since in that case, g will factor as h:F/G\rightarrow W by h([v])=g(v)...
 
Thanks a lot micromass. Your steps indeed prove that "h" is the unique linear map I am looking for.
 
##\textbf{Exercise 10}:## I came across the following solution online: Questions: 1. When the author states in "that ring (not sure if he is referring to ##R## or ##R/\mathfrak{p}##, but I am guessing the later) ##x_n x_{n+1}=0## for all odd $n$ and ##x_{n+1}## is invertible, so that ##x_n=0##" 2. How does ##x_nx_{n+1}=0## implies that ##x_{n+1}## is invertible and ##x_n=0##. I mean if the quotient ring ##R/\mathfrak{p}## is an integral domain, and ##x_{n+1}## is invertible then...
The following are taken from the two sources, 1) from this online page and the book An Introduction to Module Theory by: Ibrahim Assem, Flavio U. Coelho. In the Abelian Categories chapter in the module theory text on page 157, right after presenting IV.2.21 Definition, the authors states "Image and coimage may or may not exist, but if they do, then they are unique up to isomorphism (because so are kernels and cokernels). Also in the reference url page above, the authors present two...
I asked online questions about Proposition 2.1.1: The answer I got is the following: I have some questions about the answer I got. When the person answering says: ##1.## Is the map ##\mathfrak{q}\mapsto \mathfrak{q} A _\mathfrak{p}## from ##A\setminus \mathfrak{p}\to A_\mathfrak{p}##? But I don't understand what the author meant for the rest of the sentence in mathematical notation: ##2.## In the next statement where the author says: How is ##A\to...
Back
Top