How Do Electron Transitions Correspond to Energy Levels in Quantum Wells?

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The discussion focuses on electron transitions between energy levels in quantum wells, specifically analyzing transitions from states n=4 to n=2, n=5 to n=4, n=5 to n=1, and n=4 to n=1. It establishes that these transitions correspond to specific states in different wells, such as well C and well D. The second problem involves calculating node separation, leading to the conclusion that n=10, with an energy difference formula derived from this state. There is a correction regarding the denominator in the energy calculation, which requires squaring, and a clarification on the correct measurement of 200 pm instead of 300 pm. The conversation emphasizes the importance of accurate parameters in quantum well calculations.
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Homework Statement
Can someone check whether I've done the problems in the pictures properly? not sure if i've done them correctly.
Relevant Equations
n^2h^2/8(m_e)a^2
Screen Shot 2023-10-09 at 22.18.32.png
Screen Shot 2023-10-09 at 22.19.23.png
Screen Shot 2023-10-09 at 22.19.28.png

For the problem with the diagram, I'm getting from n=4 to n=2, n=5 to n=4, n=5 to n=1 and n=4 to n=1. n=4 to n=2 corresponds to n=1 to n=2 in well C; n=5 to n=4 corresponds to n=1 to n=2 in well D; n=5 to n=1 corresponds to n=1 to n=3 in well D and n=4 to n=1 corresponds to n=1 to n=2 in well E.
For the second problem, since the node separation is given by L/n where n is the state, and given that there is no nodes between 60pm and 80pm, i worked out that n=10. So the difference in energy is (10^2-9^2)h^2/(8(m_e)(300pm))?
 
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sss1 said:
For the problem with the diagram, I'm getting from n=4 to n=2, n=5 to n=4, n=5 to n=1 and n=4 to n=1. n=4 to n=2 corresponds to n=1 to n=2 in well C; n=5 to n=4 corresponds to n=1 to n=2 in well D; n=5 to n=1 corresponds to n=1 to n=3 in well D and n=4 to n=1 corresponds to n=1 to n=2 in well E.
For the second problem, since the node separation is given by L/n where n is the state, and given that there is no nodes between 60pm and 80pm, i worked out that n=10. So the difference in energy is (10^2-9^2)h^2/(8(m_e)(300pm))?
That appears correct, except the denominator in the energy at the end.
 
DrClaude said:
That appears correct, except the denominator in the energy at the end.
Needs squaring?
 
sss1 said:
Needs squaring?
Yes, and why 300 pm?
 
DrClaude said:
Yes, and why 300 pm?
Oh right, misread it. 200pm?
 
sss1 said:
Oh right, misread it. 200pm?
Yes
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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