How Do You Calculate Free Energy for Gas Atoms Adsorbed on a Metal Surface?

  • Thread starter Thread starter TroyElliott
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Stuck
TroyElliott
Messages
58
Reaction score
3
Originally posted in a technical forum section, so no HW template
The problem goes as follows... "

One model for the adsorption of gas atoms on a metal surface approximates the surface to be a corregated muffin-tin potential. A gas atom can lower its energy by sitting in one of the potential minima which are the adhesion sites on the surface each with a binding energy ∆. Ignore all other interactions. Show that the free energy of exactly N ≫ 1 atoms adsorbed to a metal surface with M > N adhesion sites is

F = −N∆ + MkBT[(1 − y) ln(1 − y) + y ln y],

where y = N/M."

My attempt at this problem goes as follows. This is a two level energy system, say with energy of 0 defined at the non-binding parts of the muffin-tin and ##-\Delta## in the binding wells. We can then write our partition function as follows,

$$Z = \binom{M}{0}+\binom{M}{1}e^{\beta \Delta}+\binom{M}{2}e^{\beta 2\Delta}+...+\binom{M}{N}e^{\beta N\Delta},$$

where ##\binom{M}{N}## is defined as ##\frac{M!}{N!(M-N)!}.##

This can be written as a series given by $$Z = \sum_{k=0}^{N}\binom{M}{k}e^{k\beta \Delta}.$$

When can be slightly further simplified to $$\ln{Z} = \ln{(M!)}+\ln{(\sum_{k=0}^{N}\frac{e^{k\beta \Delta}}{k!(M-k)!})}.$$

I know that the free energy is given by ##F = -k_{b}T\ln{(Z)}##, but I am not sure how to simplify the sum in order to get the correct free energy. Any ideas on where to go from here would be very much appreciated.

Thanks!
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Since N ≫ 1, you can use the Stirling approximation.
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top