How Do You Calculate the Voltage at Node C in an Op Amp Circuit?

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To calculate the voltage at node C in the op amp circuit, the discussion emphasizes using Kirchhoff's Current Law (KCL) instead of Kirchhoff's Voltage Law or Thevenin's theorem. The voltage at node B is established to be 0V due to negative feedback, which simplifies the calculations. Participants suggest setting up equations based on the currents flowing into and out of node C, specifically using the relationships between the resistors. The correct voltage at node C is confirmed to be 6V, aligning with the expected answer. The conversation highlights the importance of understanding the op amp's behavior and the application of KCL for accurate analysis.
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Hello, I'm stuck on this question, it asks to find the voltage at node c (on the circuit below) then use this value to work out other values of the op amp circuit.

I tried using kirchhoffs laws but that didn't work, then I used thevenins. Basically I took out the 6k and 8k resistors and calculated the voltage difference between the two 3k resistors and got 10.5V. Then I took away the two 3k resistors and put back the 8k and 6k then using the 10.5v found the voltage drop across the 6k resistor i.e. (6k x 10.5v)/(6k + 9k) and got 4.5v. I then took 4.5 from 10.5 and got 6 volts. However I don't have answers to this question so I'm unsure if I've got the right answer and/or my method is correct, which I doubt.

Any help on how to approach this question would be much appreciated.
 

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The correct answer is 6V. Why you don't use nodal analysis? Also are you aware that thanks to negative feedback action the voltage at point B must be equal the voltage at point A? If so VA = 0V so the VB also must be equal to 0V.
 
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Jony130 said:
The correct answer is 6V. Why you don't use nodal analysis? Also are you aware that thanks to negative feedback action the voltage at point B must be equal the voltage at point A? If so VA = 0V so the VB also must be equal to 0V.

Mainly because I'm an idiot.
 
lam58 said:
Mainly because I'm an idiot.
Don't be so harsh on yourself, new year is coming.

I think that you should try again but this time use KCL.

For this diagram

attachment.php?attachmentid=65257&stc=1&d=1388503829.jpg


We can write for node C the KCL

I1 = I2 + I3 + I4 and additional

I1 = (21V - Vc)/3K

I2 = Vc/6K

I3 = (Vc - Vd)/8K

I4 = ??

Next do the same thing for B node and next instead VB put VB = 0V and solve this simultaneous equations.
 

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Jony130 said:
Don't be so harsh on yourself, new year is coming.

I think that you should try again but this time use KCL.

For this diagram

attachment.php?attachmentid=65257&stc=1&d=1388503829.jpg


We can write for node C the KCL

I1 = I2 + I3 + I4 and additional

I1 = (21V - Vc)/3K

I2 = Vc/6K

I3 = (Vc - Vd)/8K

I4 = ??

Next do the same thing for B node and next instead VB put VB = 0V and solve this simultaneous equations.


I'm missing something here I'm putting I4 as (Vc-Vb)/3k

and for node B

(Vc-Vb)/3k = (Vb-Vd)/5k.

But this doesn't seem to be right.
 
lam58 said:
I'm missing something here I'm putting I4 as (Vc-Vb)/3k
Very good

and for node B

(Vc-Vb)/3k = (Vb-Vd)/5k.

But this doesn't seem to be right.
Why? I don't see any mistake. The ideal opamp has infinite input impedance. That means its inputs don't draw any current at all. And this is why I4 = I5
So you have all information needed to solve this problem.
 
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