Karlisbad
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Whenever there's no acceleration then: (Geodesic equation)
[tex]\nabla _{u} u =0[/tex]
where the covariant derivative includes "Christoffel symbols" so [tex]\Gamma_{kl}^{i} =0[/tex] for an Euclidean space-time..however when generalizing to a system under an acceleration then Gedesic equation becomes:
[tex]\nabla _{u} u -a^{\mu}=0[/tex] (foruth dimensional acceleration)
for a test particle [tex]\acute{{R}^{\mu}}_{\alpha \nu \beta} \acute{u}^{\alpha} \acute{x}^{\nu} \acute{u}^{\beta} = - \acute{f}^{\mu}[/tex]
where does this 4-dimensional force come from??
but if you use "Weak field approximation" then the potential of the particle (and force) is: [tex]\Gamma^{i}_{00}[/tex]
and using all that how you derive Einstein field equation so [tex]R_{ab}=0[/tex]
[tex]\nabla _{u} u =0[/tex]
where the covariant derivative includes "Christoffel symbols" so [tex]\Gamma_{kl}^{i} =0[/tex] for an Euclidean space-time..however when generalizing to a system under an acceleration then Gedesic equation becomes:
[tex]\nabla _{u} u -a^{\mu}=0[/tex] (foruth dimensional acceleration)
for a test particle [tex]\acute{{R}^{\mu}}_{\alpha \nu \beta} \acute{u}^{\alpha} \acute{x}^{\nu} \acute{u}^{\beta} = - \acute{f}^{\mu}[/tex]
where does this 4-dimensional force come from??
and using all that how you derive Einstein field equation so [tex]R_{ab}=0[/tex]