How Does Acceleration Affect the Geodesic Equation in General Relativity?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the impact of acceleration on the geodesic equation in General Relativity, specifically how the equation modifies from \nabla _{u} u =0 to \nabla _{u} u -a^{\mu}=0 when acceleration is present. Key examples include hydrostatic equilibrium in a perfect fluid solution, static test particles in a Schwarzschild vacuum, and the effects of the Lorentz force in an electrovacuum solution. The conversation also touches on the influence of spin-spin forces on test particles in curved spacetime, concluding that while these forces are typically weak, they have been a topic of significant research.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of the geodesic equation in General Relativity
  • Familiarity with Christoffel symbols and covariant derivatives
  • Knowledge of Schwarzschild vacuum solutions
  • Basic principles of electromagnetism and Lorentz force
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of the Einstein field equations from the geodesic equation
  • Explore the implications of hydrostatic equilibrium in General Relativity
  • Investigate the role of spin-spin forces in curved spacetime
  • Learn about the Weak Field Approximation in General Relativity
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Physicists, astrophysicists, and students of General Relativity seeking to deepen their understanding of the effects of acceleration on geodesics and the underlying physical interactions in curved spacetime.

Karlisbad
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Whenever there's no acceleration then: (Geodesic equation)

[tex]\nabla _{u} u =0[/tex]

where the covariant derivative includes "Christoffel symbols" so [tex]\Gamma_{kl}^{i} =0[/tex] for an Euclidean space-time..however when generalizing to a system under an acceleration then Gedesic equation becomes:

[tex]\nabla _{u} u -a^{\mu}=0[/tex] (foruth dimensional acceleration)

for a test particle [tex]\acute{{R}^{\mu}}_{\alpha \nu \beta} \acute{u}^{\alpha} \acute{x}^{\nu} \acute{u}^{\beta} = - \acute{f}^{\mu}[/tex]

where does this 4-dimensional force come from?? :confused: :confused: but if you use "Weak field approximation" then the potential of the particle (and force) is: [tex]\Gamma^{i}_{00}[/tex]

and using all that how you derive Einstein field equation so [tex]R_{ab}=0[/tex]
 
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What causes acceleration?

Karlisbad said:
where does this 4-dimensional force come from??

From some non-gravitational physical interaction or process.

Some typical examples:

1. In a static spherically symmetric perfect fluid solution (often used as an idealized stellar model), in the interior of the fluid ball, bits of fluid are accelerated radially outward by the differential pressure of the fluid, so that their world lines are timelike but nongeodesic curves. This is simply "hydrostatic equilibrium".

2. In the vacuum region outside such a fluid ball (modeled by a portion of the famous Scharzschild vacuum solution), we might consider "static test particles". These would also have world lines with outward pointing radial acceleration vector. We can think of such test particles as tiny rocket ships firing idealized rocket engines directly inward with just the right thrust to oppose the gravitational attraction of the "star". We would not of course generally attempt to model such rocketry using gtr! Fortunately, in the test model approximation, we don't have to.

3. In an "electrovacuum solution" (say the region outside an isolated charged object), a charged particle will in general be accelerated by the Lorentz force, just as in ordinary electromagnetism, but fixed up to work in a curved spacetime.

A more exotic example: according to gtr, nonspinning uncharged test particles (in an electrovacuum region outside a rotating magnetized neutron star, say) will have world lines which are timelike geodesics. However, if the test particle is spinning, in principle it will experience tiny spin-spin forces which will force its world line off a geodesic. In terms of the Bel decomposition of the Riemann curvature tensor, these spin-spin forces can be computed from the magnetogravitic tensor in a manner similar to how one can compute tidal forces from the electrogravitic tensor. They work a bit like the electromagnetic interaction of two dipole magnets, although such analogies are potentially misleading.

I should also stress that when you crunch the numbers, in most scenarios spin-spin forces turn out be very weak. Nonethelss, you might be wondering: could two spinning black holes, with coaxial and opposite spins, perhaps, in principle, be held in static equilibrium by the spin-spin force counteracting their mutual "mass monopole" gravitational attraction? This question was the focus of a protracted debate in the research literature some years ago, but this appears to have been settled in the negative.

Chris Hillman
 

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