How Does Current Direction Affect Magnetic Force on a Loop in a Uniform Field?

Saraharris38
Messages
8
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



Suppose that the magnetic field in some region has the form
B = k z ˆx.
(where k is a constant). Find the force on a square loop of side a, lying in the yz plane
and centered at the origin, if it carries a current I flowing counterclockwise when looking
down the x axis.



Homework Equations



Magnetic force=Integral (I X B) dl

The Attempt at a Solution




The force on the two vertical sides of the loop cancel each other out, and we are left with a top force of I(a/2)B= I((a^2)/2)k. The answer is I(a^2)k, meaning that at the bottom horizontal portion of the loop, the magnetic force is upwards. My question is why would it be upwards, given that the magnetic field is out (in the x direction), and the current, traveling counter-clockwise, is to the right at this part? According to the right-hand rule, shouldn't the magnetic force here be downwards?

Thanks!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
At the bottom of the loop the magnetic field is in the (-x) direction since z<0. So the force experienced in the bottom section would be upwards as well.
 
Ah! Thank you, that makes sense.
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top