How is moment of inertia calculated and translated between units?

AI Thread Summary
Moment of inertia is calculated using the formula mass multiplied by the square of the distance to the center of rotation. The discussion highlights confusion regarding unit conversions, particularly between meters and millimeters, and the relationship between torque and moment of inertia. It clarifies that while the units may appear different, they can be reconciled through appropriate conversions. The integral definition of moment of inertia and its application to shapes like rectangles is also addressed, emphasizing the consistency in units. Overall, the conversation seeks to resolve apparent contradictions in the calculations and definitions of moment of inertia.
RundleSeb
Messages
5
Reaction score
0
TL;DR Summary
Calculating moment of inertia and translating it between units
Calculating moment of inertia and translating it between units, I've become confused.

The example is a mass of 1kg at 2000mm from the pivot. The force is applied at 1000mm from the pivot.

Basics as far as I'm aware:
Moment of inertia = mass * Distance to center of rotation^2
Torque = Moment of inertia * angular acceleration.
Torque = Force* The distance of the force to the center of rotation

so to achieve acceleration of 1 rad/sec^2

In meters
Moment of inertia = 1*(2^2) = 4 kg m^2
Torque = Moment of inertia * angular acceleration = 4*1 = 4 Nm
Force = 4 NM / 1m = 4N

In mm

Moment of inertia = 1*(2000^2) = 4000,000 kg mm^2
Torque = Moment of inertia * angular acceleration = 4000,000*1 = 4000,000 Nmm
Force = 4000,000 NM /1000 mm = 4000NCan the calculation not be done in distance units other than meters? am I missing something?
 
Engineering news on Phys.org
Torque units are wrong. 1 kg mm2/s2 ≠ 1 N mm.
 
I assume as such, but I can't find equations other than those.
 
But you can do the units conversion, can't you? That's all that's wrong.
 
Hmm

Force = mass*acceleration = mass*(distance/time^2)
Force * distance = mass*distance^2 * 1/time^2

It seems the units do kinda add up? I think?
 
After a bit of thought over the units
1557929312984.png
, I currently believe this discrepancy is because

1 N = 1 (kg*m)/s^2
thus 1 N = 1000 (kg*mm)/s^2 (or, 1 (kg*mm)/s^2 = 1μN)

Thus considering the earlier question,
Torque (Nmm) = Moment of inertia (kg*mm^2) * angular acceleration(1/s^2) = 4000,000*1 = 4000,000 (μN mm) or 4000 (N mm)
 
RundleSeb said:
Force = mass*acceleration = mass*(distance/time^2)
Force * distance = mass*distance^2 * 1/time^2

It seems the units do kinda add up? I think?
That's dimensions, not units. A picometre and a light year both have dimensions of length, but have very different magnitudes.
Your last post is not quite right. (It might just be a typo)
4,000,000 kg mm2 * 1 s-2 = 4,000,000 kg mm s-2*mm = 4,000,000 mN mm = 4000 N mm = 4 N m.
 
Ah i get what you were going at now.

Also well spotted (it is a typo , should be mN not μN)
 
The inertia definition is integral of I= r^2dm and the units of this is [Kg*sqrm]
the inertia of rectangle is : I= B*H^3/12 and the unit of inertia is [m^4]

My question is how do the two things work out?
Is there no contradiction between them?
 
  • #10
beashayyael said:
The inertia definition is integral of I= r^2dm and the units of this is [Kg*sqrm]
the inertia of rectangle is : I= B*H^3/12 and the unit of inertia is [m^4]

My question is how do the two things work out?
Is there no contradiction between them?
Please, read this:
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Second_moment_of_area
 
Back
Top