How Is Thevenin Resistance Calculated in R1 Parallel to R2 Configuration?

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Thevenin resistance (R_th) for a configuration with R1 in parallel to R2 is calculated as R_th = R_1 || R_2, which can be confusing when considering the absence of a load. When analyzing the circuit, if ground and the input voltage (Vin) are treated as having zero impedance, R1 and R2 appear in parallel at their junction. This perspective clarifies that R_th is measured across the R1-R2 junction and the ground/Vin node. In contrast, if an ideal current source is used instead of a voltage source, R_th would only equal R2 due to the infinite impedance of the current source. Understanding these principles is essential for accurate circuit analysis.
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How is thevenin equivalent calculated for this network
The attached image (Horowitz & Hill Student Manual for 2nd ed) gives thevenin resistance and voltage for the network R_1+(R_2||R_L) as

R_th=R_1||R_2

E_th=E_in(R1/(R_1+R_2)) E_th is self-evident (voltage divider) but how in the world they get R_th i beyond me. If there is no load, isn't R_1 in series with R_2 no matter what?
Capture.JPG


Many thanks in advance

Joe
 
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theycallmevirgo said:
If there is no load, isn't R_1 in series with R_2 no matter what?
If you consider the ground and Vin to both have zero impedance, then the impedance of the R1-R2 junction is seen as the two resistors in parallel.
 
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Baluncore said:
If you consider the ground and Vin to both have zero impedance, then the impedance of the R1-R2 junction is seen as the two resistors in parallel.
So if I understand you correctly, wrt resistance gnd and v are "the same node" and therefore R_t is "measured across" R1-R2 junction and ground/v "node"?
 
Yes.
An ideal voltage source has a zero impedance, so ground Vin when calculating the thevenin resistance of the R1-R2 junction node.

If the supply was instead an ideal current source Iin, you would disconnect it as it would have an infinite impedance, then Rth would be only R2.
 
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