How Long Until a Two-Particle Quantum System Reverts to Its Initial State?

  • Thread starter Thread starter agooddog
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Qm System
agooddog
Messages
3
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



This is a quick one, which I apologize ahead of time for not writing this out more neatly. The parentheses denote subscripts. I have a system of two particles, which are in a superposition Psi(one) + Psi(two). The energy of particle one is E(1) and of particle two is E(2). How long does it take for the wave function of the system of two particles to return to what it was at t = 0?

Homework Equations



Perhaps the energy-time uncertainty principle.

The Attempt at a Solution



Well, alright. My first reaction is to say that because there are definite energies, it is in a stationary state and will not change with time. However, getting to the math of it, this only works if there is orthogonality between the two particles' initial states. When normalizing the time-dependent version, I end up with a cosine term at the end. Does the system return to the state of t = 0 when the term in the cosine = 2pi ?

I feel like I'm on the right track but it seems kind of messy.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Are you sure this is a two-particle system? Or is it a single particle in a superposition of energy eigenstates?

It would help if you showed your calculations.
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top