Infinite Well with Sinusoidal Potential

jyoung11509
Messages
1
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



Assume a potential of the form V(x)=V_{0}sin({\frac{\pi x}{L}}) with 0<x<L and V(x)=\infty outside this range. Assume \psi = \sum a_{j} \phi_{j}(x), where \phi_{j}(x) are solutions for the infinite square well. Construct the ground state wavefunction using at least 10 basis functions.


Homework Equations



I obtained the solution \phi_{n} = \sqrt{\frac{2}{L}} \sin({\frac{n\pi x}{L}}) for the infinite square well with zero potential inside.

The Attempt at a Solution



After obtaining the solution shown above, I attempted to expand the summation. I know that I want to do a linear combination of energy eigenstates, however, I am not sure what to do about the leading coefficients. I have found by searching that a_{j} = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \phi_{j}^{*}(x) \psi dx, but how can I solve this if I'm using the a_{j}'s to find \psi?

Any help or advice would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
You need to apply the Schrodinger equation to your linear combination, since the particle in a box basis are not solutions once we turn on this sinusoidal potential. You'll probably be able to use a trig identity to simplify the potential terms with V(x) \phi_k(x), then group like orders of \sin(n\pi x/L). This will give you some recursive relations among the a_j. To obtain the ground state energy, you might have to minimize something.
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top