Integral of $\log (1+a\cos x)$ from 0 to $\pi$

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Homework Statement


Evaluate \displaystyle \int_0^{\pi} \log (1+a\cos x) dx

Homework Equations



The Attempt at a Solution


Using Leibnitz's Rule,
F'(a)=\displaystyle \int_0^{\pi} \dfrac{\cos x}{1+a \cos x} dx

Now, If I assume sinx=t, then the above integral changes to
\displaystyle \int_0^{0} \dfrac{dt}{1+a \sqrt{1-t^2}}

Since both the limits are zero now, shouldn't the value of integral be 0! :confused:
 
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utkarshakash said:
\displaystyle \int_0^{0} \dfrac{dt}{1+a \sqrt{1-t^2}}

Since both the limits are zero now, shouldn't the value of integral be 0! :confused:
No. For one thing, the use of the square root function hides the fact that cos(t) will change sign over the range. Split it into two integrals to be safe.
 
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