isalloum4
- 10
- 0
Homework Statement
Why integral from a to b of f(x) equals "minus (-)" integral from b to a of f(x)? when a<b or a>b
The discussion revolves around the relationship between integrals over different limits, specifically why the integral from a to b of a function f(x) equals the negative of the integral from b to a of the same function. The subject area is calculus, focusing on integral definitions and properties.
The discussion is ongoing, with participants sharing their thoughts on the geometric representation of the integrals and referencing Apostol's definitions. Some have provided insights into the relationship between the integrals, while others continue to seek clarification on the concepts involved.
There is mention of assumptions regarding the order of limits (a < b or a > b) and the definitions provided in Apostol's calculus text. Participants are also considering the implications of these definitions on their understanding of integrals.
isalloum4 said:I am reading Apostol calculus and I couldn't figure out how the above relation got derived!
isalloum4 said:Exactly that I meant! It is conceptually confusing ( even though I thought I am good at that) and I don't know where it came from!
Many thanks for help