isalloum4
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Homework Statement
Why integral from a to b of f(x) equals "minus (-)" integral from b to a of f(x)? when a<b or a>b
isalloum4 said:I am reading Apostol calculus and I couldn't figure out how the above relation got derived!
isalloum4 said:Exactly that I meant! It is conceptually confusing ( even though I thought I am good at that) and I don't know where it came from!
Many thanks for help