Integration by parts with trig function insanity

cuttlefish
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Homework Statement


Let In=the integral from 0 to pi/2 of sinnxdx
show that (I2n+1)/(I2n)=(2n+1)/(2n+2)


Homework Equations


integral from 0 to pi/2 of sin2n=(2n-1)pi/4n


The Attempt at a Solution


I can't write down all that I've done because it's just too ridiculous. I've tried lots of forms of just trying to manipulate my equation above, which didn't work. I've tried integration by parts for sin2n+1*sinx but I've ended up with the integral of cos2xsin2nx and I can't find a suitable substitution for that. I've been working on this problem forever and it's killing me. If anyone has any suggestions I would be very appreciative.
 
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Have you seen the derivation of Wallis' infinite product for pi/2?
 
unfortunately, I have to use this problem to prove that next.
 
so you're trying to do the even integral first? think you might have been on the right track how about looking at some induction as a next step...

I2n = \intdt sint2n = \intdt sint2n-1.sint

integrating by parts

I2n = (2n-1)\intdt sint2(n-1)cost2

I2n = (2n-1)\intdt sint2(n-1) - (2n-1)\intdt sint2n

So
2n. I2n = (2n-1).I2(n-1)
 
so you're trying to do the even integral? think you might have been on the right track how about looking at some induction as a next step...

so from I2n = \intdt sint2n = \intdt sint2n-1.sint

and integrating by parts like you did, I get to

2n. I2n = (2n-1).I2(n-1)

Also is that formula for I2n in the post correct? i would of thought it should tend zero as n heads towrds infinity
 
There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...
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