monet A
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As a revision exercise we have been given.
find
\lim_{\substack{x\rightarrow infty} } (x+e^x) ^ (2/x)
****Darn It it won't work, the above is (x+e^x) all raised to (2/x)
our lecturer has given us a walkthrough the solution which is done by letting the function = y and taking logs of both sides, which gives a limit of infinity/infinity, so we can use L'hopitals rule to derive a limit for lny to infinity then invert it onto the index of e for the answer.
This all makes sense to me, I just have one problem with the working.
the function for lny comes out to \frac {2ln(x+e^x)}{x}
and the derivative of this is given as \frac {2(1+e^x)/(x+e^x)}{1}
The numerator makes sense to me to be the derivative of 2ln(x+e^x) but I don't understand how the denominator becomes so simple. It looks to me like the solution just differentiates the top and then differentiates the bottom?

find
\lim_{\substack{x\rightarrow infty} } (x+e^x) ^ (2/x)
****Darn It it won't work, the above is (x+e^x) all raised to (2/x)
our lecturer has given us a walkthrough the solution which is done by letting the function = y and taking logs of both sides, which gives a limit of infinity/infinity, so we can use L'hopitals rule to derive a limit for lny to infinity then invert it onto the index of e for the answer.
This all makes sense to me, I just have one problem with the working.
the function for lny comes out to \frac {2ln(x+e^x)}{x}
and the derivative of this is given as \frac {2(1+e^x)/(x+e^x)}{1}
The numerator makes sense to me to be the derivative of 2ln(x+e^x) but I don't understand how the denominator becomes so simple. It looks to me like the solution just differentiates the top and then differentiates the bottom?

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