Is the Chern-Simons Lagrangian a Lorentz Scalar in a 2D World?

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SUMMARY

The Chern-Simons Lagrangian, defined as L_{CS} = \epsilon_{0}\frac{\kappa}{2}\epsilon^{\alpha \beta \gamma}(\partial_{\alpha}A_{\beta})A_{\gamma}, is confirmed to be a Lorentz scalar in a 2D world due to its invariance under parity transformations. The discussion emphasizes that to establish gauge invariance, one must demonstrate that the Lagrangian remains unchanged under the transformation A_\alpha \rightarrow A_\alpha + \partial_\alpha V, where V is a scalar function. The analysis indicates that the Lagrangian's structure allows it to be either a scalar or pseudo-scalar, necessitating the exclusion of the latter through parity checks.

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  • Understanding of Lagrangian mechanics
  • Familiarity with tensors and the antisymmetric unity tensor
  • Knowledge of gauge invariance principles
  • Basic concepts of parity transformations
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Homework Statement



Imagine a spatially 2d world. The electromagnetic field could be richer here, because you could add to the Lagrangian L an additional term (known as the Chern-Simons Lagrangian)

[tex]L_{CS} = \epsilon_{0}\frac{\kappa}{2}\epsilon^{\alpha \beta \gamma}(\partial_{\alpha}A_{\beta})A_{\gamma}[/tex]​

where

[tex]\epsilon^{\alpha \beta \gamma}[/tex]

denotes the completely antisymmetric unity tensor in a world with 2 spatial dimensions (and time) and [tex]\kappa[\tex] is a coupling constant. In order to be suitable as part of the total Lagrangian, [tex]L_{CS}[\tex] must be a Lorentz scalar. Explain why the Chern-Simons expression is indeed a scalar. Why is the action generated by [tex]L_{CS}[\tex] guage-invariant?<br /> <br /> <h2>The Attempt at a Solution</h2><br /> <br /> I must admit, I'm rather confused by this one, and haven't done much work with the unity tensor before (I've only just begun playing with tensors, really).<br /> <br /> I was hoping to learn something by trying this problem, but haven't got anywhere with it yet, and any help would be greatly appreciated.[/tex][/tex][/tex]
 
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that sounds like an interesting problem. Firstly, it's obvious that L is either a scaler or pseudo-scaler. You just need to rule out that last possibility. Parity transformation maps
[tex]u_0 \rightarrow u_0[/tex]
[tex]u_1 \rightarrow -u_1[/tex]
[tex]u_2 \rightarrow -u_2[/tex]

it suffices to show that L is invariant under this transformation. As for gauge invariance, this is pretty much the transformation:
[tex]A_\alpha \rightarrow A_\alpha + \partial_\alpha V[/tex]
for scaler V. If L changes by a divergences under this transformation, you get gauge-invariance.
 
tim_lou said:
that sounds like an interesting problem. Firstly, it's obvious that L is either a scaler or pseudo-scaler. You just need to rule out that last possibility. Parity transformation maps
[tex]u_0 \rightarrow u_0[/tex]
[tex]u_1 \rightarrow -u_1[/tex]
[tex]u_2 \rightarrow -u_2[/tex]

it suffices to show that L is invariant under this transformation. As for gauge invariance, this is pretty much the transformation:
[tex]A_\alpha \rightarrow A_\alpha + \partial_\alpha V[/tex]
for scaler V. If L changes by a divergences under this transformation, you get gauge-invariance.

Thank you :-)

Would I be right in thinking that a covariant dot product can be formed in the above (and these are invariant) - another way of looking at it (?)

Regarding the gauge invariance, are you proposing simply to substitute that transformation into the above expression and see if I can kill off all the [tex]\partial_\alpha V[/tex] terms, somehow (?)

Cheers.
 

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