was answered 9 minutes after you posted:
Benny said:
It is the same (that is of course, if by the same you are referring to the derivative of exp(x-1)). Just use the chain rule to be sure."
But you don't really need to do any derivatives at all. You were also told:
e^x= \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{x^n}{n!}
and it is obvious that e
x-1= e
x/e.
Your last question just echos your first:
Kristi said:
no, I've been working on this assignment all weekend, and have not gone to sleep. so would f''(x) then be 1/e^2*e^x?
If f(x)= e
x-1 there are two ways of finding the derivative:
1) use the chain rule: let u=x-1 so f(u)= e
u. What is df/du? What is du/dx? Multiply them together.
2) f(x)= e
x-1= e
x/e. What is the derivative of e
x divided by a constant?