Is the Expectation Value Always 1 for Normalized State Vectors?

tetris11
Messages
22
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



|O> = k |R1> + 1/9 |R2>

a) Find k if |O> has already been normalized, and b) then the expectation value.

The Attempt at a Solution


a)
To Normalise:
|(|O>)|2 = (1/9 |R2> + k |R1>).(1/9 |R2> - k|R1>) = 1/81|R2>2 - k2|R1>2 = 1

I just assumed that |k| = (1-(1/81))0.5, but I can't justify why. Is this answer correct?

b)
Expectation value:
Operator A of the system D

<D|A|D> = ∫D*AD dt = is the expectation value, where:

A|n> = λn|n>
|D> = Σ Cn |Qn>
<D| = Σ Cn* <Qn|

So: <D|A|D> = Σ |Cn|2 λn

So in the case of O:
<O|A|O> = ΣΣ [(1/9<R2| - k<R1|).A.(1/9|R2> + k|R1>)]
= ΣΣ[(1/81<R2|R2> + k/9<R2|R1> - k/9<R1|R2> - k2<R1|R1>)].A
= ? Help
 
Physics news on Phys.org
You need to read somewhere how to calculate the norm of a state. Read and try to understand. If you have problems at this point - you will never be able to understand anything that follows. Find it on the net, in textbooks, in your notes.
 
Ok, so I'm fairly sure that the value of k = \sqrt{1 - (1/9)^2} = \sqrt{80/81}
Tricky part now is the expectation value:<A> = \sum |Cn|2 an = |C1|2 a1 + |C2|2 a2

I'm told that the corresponding eigenvalues are +1 and -1.

So <A>= |1/9|2 (+1) - |(80/81|(-1) = 81/81 = 1 ?

So for a normalised state vector, the expectation value will always be 1 for these eigenvalues? Or have I done something wrong?
 
Last edited:
Hi, I had an exam and I completely messed up a problem. Especially one part which was necessary for the rest of the problem. Basically, I have a wormhole metric: $$(ds)^2 = -(dt)^2 + (dr)^2 + (r^2 + b^2)( (d\theta)^2 + sin^2 \theta (d\phi)^2 )$$ Where ##b=1## with an orbit only in the equatorial plane. We also know from the question that the orbit must satisfy this relationship: $$\varepsilon = \frac{1}{2} (\frac{dr}{d\tau})^2 + V_{eff}(r)$$ Ultimately, I was tasked to find the initial...
##|\Psi|^2=\frac{1}{\sqrt{\pi b^2}}\exp(\frac{-(x-x_0)^2}{b^2}).## ##\braket{x}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{\pi b^2}}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}dx\,x\exp(-\frac{(x-x_0)^2}{b^2}).## ##y=x-x_0 \quad x=y+x_0 \quad dy=dx.## The boundaries remain infinite, I believe. ##\frac{1}{\sqrt{\pi b^2}}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}dy(y+x_0)\exp(\frac{-y^2}{b^2}).## ##\frac{2}{\sqrt{\pi b^2}}\int_0^{\infty}dy\,y\exp(\frac{-y^2}{b^2})+\frac{2x_0}{\sqrt{\pi b^2}}\int_0^{\infty}dy\,\exp(-\frac{y^2}{b^2}).## I then resolved the two...
Back
Top