Is the Hydrogen Atom Ground State Wave Function Normalized?

jg370
Messages
16
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



The ground state wave function for the electron in a hydrogen atom is:

\psi(r) = \frac{1}{\sqrt (\pi a_o^3)} e^\frac{-r}{a_o}

where r is the radial coordinate of the electron and a_o is the Bohr radius.

Show that the wave function as given is normalized.


Homework Equations



Any wave function satisfying the following equation is said to be normalized:

\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} |\psi|^2\dx = 1


The Attempt at a Solution



Because the sum of all probabilities over all values of r must be 1,

\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} (\frac{1}{\sqrt (\pi a_o^3)} e^\frac{-r}{a_o})^2 dr = \frac{1}{\pi a_o^3} \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} e^\frac{-2r}{a_o^2} dr = 1

Since the integral can be expressed as the sum of two integrals, we have,

\frac{1}{\pi a_o^3} \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} e^\frac{-2r}{a_o^2} dr = \frac{2}{\pi a_o^3} \int_0^{+\infty} e^\frac{-2r}{a_o^2} dr = 1

After integrating, I obtain,

\frac{1}{\pi a_o^3} = 1

which is definitely incorrect. However, I do not see any other way to proceed. could someone give some assitance.

Thanks for your kind assistance

jg370
 
Physics news on Phys.org
you integrated wrong -
\int_0^{\infty} e^{-\frac{2r}{a_0^2}} dr = [-\frac{a_0^2}{2} e^{-\frac{2r}{a_0^2}]_0^{\infty}=\frac{a_0^2}{2}

which gives \frac{1}{2 \pi a_0}=1
 
the a_0 in your exponent shouldn't be squared, also the normalization condition says you should integrate over the bounds of your function. if r is the radial coordinate then how can it have a value of negative infinity? similarly your no longer normalizing in 1-d but 3D I recommend using spherical coordinates in which case your integral inherits a r^2 sin theta
 
Tks. I wil try again using spherical coordinates
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top