Is the Solution to the Equivalent Impedance Problem Correct?

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The discussion centers on the correctness of a solution to the equivalent impedance problem. The original poster believes the given solution is incorrect, asserting that the equivalent impedance should be R + jwL || 1/jwC. They derive the expression for jwL || 1/jwC as jwL / (j(w^2)CL + 1), contrasting it with the provided solution that uses 1 - j(w^2)CL. The poster realizes their mistake in overlooking that j^2 equals -1, which affects the final expression. This highlights the importance of careful algebraic manipulation in solving impedance problems.
ness9660
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Given this problem and its solution:

http://img230.imageshack.us/img230/9239/quest13lf.gif


I think the given solution is wrong. The equivalent impedence is R + jwL || 1/jwC, right?

When I work out jwL || 1/jwC, I get ((jwL) * (1/jwC))/ (jwL + 1/jwC) = jwL / (j(w^2)CL + 1).


However the given solution has 1- j(w^2)CL instead of my 1 +.

Ive worked this out every way I could think of, is the given solution correct, or am I correct?
 
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Nevermind, I feel dumb now.

I completely missed that j^2=-1
 
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