Proving John Machin's Formula for Arctan Difference

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In summary, this problem involves the John Machin's formula. Here it goes: if xy \neq -1, then \arctan x - \arctan y = \arctan \frac{x-y}{1+xy} if the left side lies between -\pi/2 and \pi/2, then by the way, John Machin's formula is: 4 \arctan \frac{1}{5} - \arctan \frac{1}{239} = \arctan \frac{\pi}{4} He used this to find \pi correct to 100 decimal places. Anyhow, here is what I've done so far
  • #1
DivGradCurl
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I'm a bit puzzled by this problem, which involves the John Machin's formula. Here it goes:

Show that for [tex] xy \neq -1 [/tex],

[tex] \arctan x - \arctan y = \arctan \frac{x-y}{1+xy} [/tex]

ïf the left side lies between [tex] -\pi /2 [/tex] and [tex] \pi /2 [/tex].

By the way, John Machin's formula is:

[tex] 4 \arctan \frac{1}{5} - \arctan \frac{1}{239} = \arctan \frac{\pi}{4} [/tex]

He used this to find [tex] \pi [/tex] correct to 100 decimal places.

Anyhow, here is what I've done so far:

If

[tex] \arctan x = \sum _{n=0} ^{\infty} \left( -1 \right) ^n \frac{x^{2n+1}}{2n+1} [/tex]

[tex] \arctan y = \sum _{n=0} ^{\infty} \left( -1 \right) ^n \frac{y^{2n+1}}{2n+1} [/tex]

[tex] \arctan \frac{x-y}{1+xy} = \sum _{n=0} ^{\infty} \left( -1 \right) ^n \frac{\left( \frac{x-y}{1+xy} \right)^{2n+1}}{2n+1} [/tex]

Then

[tex] \sum _{n=0} ^{\infty} \left( -1 \right) ^n \frac{\left( x^{2n+1} - y^{2n+1}\right)}{2n+1} = \sum _{n=0} ^{\infty} \left( -1 \right) ^n \frac{\left( \frac{x-y}{1+xy} \right)^{2n+1}}{2n+1} [/tex]

Therefore

[tex] x^{2n+1} - y^{2n+1} = \left( \frac{x-y}{1+xy} \right)^{2n+1} [/tex]

I'm not sure I am on the right path. Maybe, I simply need to pick a couple of values to demonstrate that the given relationship is true, but it feels like it might not be enough. In other words, "show" up there looks a bit ambiguous. Any help is highly appreciated.

Thanks
 
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  • #2
My friend,why use calculus to get nowhere,when u can use (circular) trigonometry to prove in an elegant way?
Take "tan"out both sides of your identity and use what i'll write below:
[tex] \tan(a-b)=:\frac{\sin(a-b)}{\cos(a-b)}=\frac{\sin a\cos b-\sin b\cos a}{\cos a\cos b+\sin a\sin b} [/tex]

Simplify the last fraction through the product of 'cosines' to find the celebrated formula
[tex] \tan(a-b)=\frac{\tan a-\tan b}{1+\tan a\tan b} [/tex]
Substitute in the last identity:
[tex] a\rightarrow \arctan x;b\rightarrow \arctan y [/tex]
,make use of the fact that "tan",on the interval give in the problem is a uniform function and get exactly the formula u would get if taking "tan" from the identity u need to prove.

Daniel.

PS.Trigonometry is beauty... :approve:
 
  • #3
Thanks for your input, Daniel.

Let me see if I understand it...

[tex] \arctan x - \arctan y = \arctan \frac{x-y}{1+xy} \qquad (1) [/tex]​

[tex] x - y = \frac{x-y}{1+xy} \qquad (2) [/tex]​

[tex] \tan \left( x - y \right) = \tan \left( \frac{x-y}{1+xy} \right) \qquad (3) [/tex]​

[tex] \tan \left( x - y \right) = \frac{\sin \left( x - y \right)}{\cos \left( x - y \right)} \qquad (4) [/tex]​

[tex] \tan \left( x - y \right) = \frac{\sin x \cos y - \cos x \sin y}{\cos x \cos y + \sin x \sin y} \qquad (5) [/tex]​

[tex] \tan \left( x - y \right) = \left( \frac{\frac{1}{\cos x \cos y}}{\frac{1}{\cos x \cos y}} \right) \frac{\sin x \cos y - \cos x \sin y}{\cos x \cos y + \sin x \sin y} \qquad (6) [/tex]​

[tex] \tan \left( x - y \right) = \frac{\tan x - \tan y}{1 + \tan x \tan y} \qquad (7) [/tex]​

[tex] \arctan x - \arctan y = \arctan \frac{x-y}{1+xy} \qquad (8) [/tex]​
 
  • #4
U didn't. :tongue2: I can't explain in another way the bunch of c*** at numbers (2) and (3)...

Formulas (4) pp.(7) give a proof for the trigonometrical identity that can be used to prove your identity.I stated that proof just to let u know i didn't invent it nor rediscovered it hundreds of years later.

I said to apply tangent on both sides of your identity:
[tex] \tan(\arctan x-\arctan y) =\tan[\arctan(\frac{x-y}{1+xy})] [/tex]

`Work the left hand side using the formula I've given proof:
[tex] \tan(\arctan x-\arctan y) =\frac{\tan(\arctan x)-\tan(\arctan y)}{1+\tan(\arctan x)\tan(\arctan y)}=\frac{x-y}{1+xy} [/tex] (1)

Work the right hand side:
[tex] \tan[\arctan(\frac{x-y}{1+xy})] =\frac{x-y}{1+xy} [/tex] (2)

Interpretation of the relations (1) and (2) is that you have shown that:
[tex] \tan A=C (1') \tan B=C (2') [/tex](3)
From (3) it follows immediately
[tex] \tan A=\tan B [/tex] (4)
From (4) and from tha fact that on the interval [itex] (-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2}) [/itex] the function "tan" is a uniform/surjective function,u get that
[tex] A=B [/tex] (5)
,which is nothing but your identity in symbolic form.

Daniel.
 
  • #5
Oh... I now see what you mean. Thank you.
 

What is John Machin's Formula?

John Machin's Formula is a mathematical formula used to calculate the value of pi (π). It was developed by English mathematician John Machin in 1706.

How does John Machin's Formula work?

The formula is based on the arctangent function and involves a series of mathematical operations. It is written as π/4 = 4arctan(1/5) - arctan(1/239). By plugging in these values, the formula can approximate the value of pi.

What makes John Machin's Formula significant?

John Machin's Formula is significant because it was the first formula to be able to calculate pi to 100 decimal places accurately. It laid the foundation for future advancements in the calculation of pi.

Is John Machin's Formula the most accurate way to calculate pi?

No, there are other formulas and methods that can calculate pi to even more decimal places. However, John Machin's Formula is still widely used and considered to be a significant contribution to the calculation of pi.

Can John Machin's Formula be used to calculate other mathematical constants?

Yes, the formula can be modified to calculate other constants such as Euler's Number (e) and the Golden Ratio (φ). It is a versatile formula that can be applied to various mathematical calculations.

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