Sorry - I was busy before. I didn't mean for my post to make me sound like suck an A-Hole, my apologies.
To solve an ODE using laplace, you don't find the solution to the homogeneous and then a particular solution to the inhomogeneous part. Rather, you take the laplace transform of the whole ODE, solve for L{y} and then get the inverse laplace transform of that.
But, your laplace transform of the homogeneous part is correct.
I got a different (well, seemingly different) Laplace transform than your book did. (I think they probably just took the Laplace transform of the whole equation.) However, to get the inverse of my Laplace transform, I had to use "exponential shift" with a couple of hyperbolic functions. Perhaps that is a hint, I don't know.
EDIT:
I use \hat{y} to be the Laplace transform of y.
As for multiplying by 2, you have: (s^2\hat{y}-sy(0)-y'(0))-(2s\hat{y}-y(0))+2 \hat{y}=0 it should be: (s^2 \hat{y}-sy(0)-y'(0))-(2s\hat{y}-2y(0))+2\hat{y}=0. However, it doesn't matter since y(0)=0.