- #1
ktpr2
- 192
- 0
I would've thought
[tex] \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} x sin(\frac{1}{x})} = 0 [/tex]
because
[tex] \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} x = \infty [/tex] and [tex]\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} sin(\frac{1}{x})} = sin ( \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1}{x} = sin( 0)= 0[/tex] and [tex] \infty * 0 = 0 [/tex]
I begin to wonder if they should go back to teaching infestimals because in cases
[tex] \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} x sin(\frac{1}{x})} = 0 [/tex]
because
[tex] \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} x = \infty [/tex] and [tex]\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} sin(\frac{1}{x})} = sin ( \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1}{x} = sin( 0)= 0[/tex] and [tex] \infty * 0 = 0 [/tex]
I begin to wonder if they should go back to teaching infestimals because in cases