Linear Algebra - Invariant Subspaces/Adjoint

steelphantom
Messages
158
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Suppose T is in L(V) and U is a subspace of V. Prove that U is invariant under T if and only if Uperp is invariant under T*.

Homework Equations


V = U \oplus Uperp
if v \in V, u \in U, w \in Uperp, then v = u + w.
<Tv, w> = <v, T*w>

The Attempt at a Solution


If U is invariant under T, this means that if u \in U, Tu \in U. Basically the same thing for Uperp. Not really sure where to go from here. Any ideas? Thanks!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Rember that <u, w> = 0 for any u in U, v in Uperp. If U is invariant under T, then Tu is in U so <Tu, w>= 0= <u, T*w>, for any u in U. What does that tell you about T*w?
 
HallsofIvy said:
Rember that <u, w> = 0 for any u in U, v in Uperp. If U is invariant under T, then Tu is in U so <Tu, w>= 0= <u, T*w>, for any u in U. What does that tell you about T*w?

Does it say that T*w must be in Uperp, since <u, T*w> = 0 for any T*w?
 
Just a bump to see if I am understanding this correctly:

If T is invariant under U, then <Tu, w> = 0 since Tu is in U, w is in Uperp. But <Tu, w> = <u, T*w> = 0, which means that T*w is in Uperp. This proves that T* is invariant under Uperp.

If T* is invariant under Uperp, then <u, T*w> = 0 since u is in U, T*w is in Uperp. But <u, T*w> = <Tu, w> = 0, which means that Tw is in U. This proves that T is invariant under U.

Is that correct, or am I missing something?
 
steelphantom said:
Just a bump to see if I am understanding this correctly:

If T is invariant under U, then <Tu, w> = 0 since Tu is in U, w is in Uperp. But <Tu, w> = <u, T*w> = 0, which means that T*w is in Uperp. This proves that T* is invariant under Uperp.
Actually it proves that Uperp is invariant under T*!

If T* is invariant under Uperp, then <u, T*w> = 0 since u is in U, T*w is in Uperp. But <u, T*w> = <Tu, w> = 0, which means that Tw is in U. This proves that T is invariant under U.

Is that correct, or am I missing something?
No, your second part looks so much like the first part because T and T* are "dual".
 
Err... that's what I meant. :redface: It was kind of late. Thanks for your help! :smile:
 
Prove $$\int\limits_0^{\sqrt2/4}\frac{1}{\sqrt{x-x^2}}\arcsin\sqrt{\frac{(x-1)\left(x-1+x\sqrt{9-16x}\right)}{1-2x}} \, \mathrm dx = \frac{\pi^2}{8}.$$ Let $$I = \int\limits_0^{\sqrt 2 / 4}\frac{1}{\sqrt{x-x^2}}\arcsin\sqrt{\frac{(x-1)\left(x-1+x\sqrt{9-16x}\right)}{1-2x}} \, \mathrm dx. \tag{1}$$ The representation integral of ##\arcsin## is $$\arcsin u = \int\limits_{0}^{1} \frac{\mathrm dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}}, \qquad 0 \leqslant u \leqslant 1.$$ Plugging identity above into ##(1)## with ##u...
Back
Top