- #1
EvLer
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Is there a way to formally prove:
A -> (A -> B) equivalent to (A -> B)
do I just assume A and then use modus ponenes (by deduction method)? It just looks a bit odd asserting a premise out of the blue...
I checked the truth table for those, it seems to be true, however, truth table is not going to work as the answer, I need to do this formally.
Thanks in advance.
ps: sorry for trashing forum with my logic threads... from now on, i'll just put my questions (if i have any) here
A -> (A -> B) equivalent to (A -> B)
do I just assume A and then use modus ponenes (by deduction method)? It just looks a bit odd asserting a premise out of the blue...
I checked the truth table for those, it seems to be true, however, truth table is not going to work as the answer, I need to do this formally.
Thanks in advance.
ps: sorry for trashing forum with my logic threads... from now on, i'll just put my questions (if i have any) here