Magnetic moment of proton and electron of H-atom in ground state L=0

lquinnl
Messages
26
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



Consider the Hydrogen atom in a magnetic field of 2T. If the atom is in its ground state (orbital angular momentum L=0):
(a) Write down the magnetic moments of the proton and the spinning electron. [1]

Homework Equations



I am aware that the magnetic moment μ = (q/2m)L

The Attempt at a Solution

but because L=0 this means that μ=0 for both the proton and the electron, which doesn't seem to me to be a valid answer.

Is this the correct way to be attacking this problem or am i missing something?

Any help with pointing me in the right direction would be much appreciated.

Thanks.
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
I think it asks for the expectation value of the magnetic moment operator in the fundamental state (1s).
 
Thanks for the help, but I've looked at it some more alongside my lecture notes and I think what they want is:

\mu^{spin} = -2 \frac{e\hbar}{2m_{e}}m_{s}

for the electron, and for the proton:

\mu = -2.79 \frac{e\hbar}{2m_{p}}m_{s}


Do you think that seems reasonable? I am going to ask the lecturer tomorrow if it is the expectation value he wants or not.

Thanks again for the feedback!
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top