me (problems with rotating cylinder)

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The discussion revolves around calculating the time it takes for a smaller solid cylinder embedded in a larger hollow cylinder to rotate from an initial angle of π/4 to π, assuming no friction. The user has derived the torque and moment of inertia but seeks a formula to relate angular displacement to time. They consider integrating angular acceleration to find the average angular acceleration for this calculation. The thread is noted to belong in the homework section, emphasizing the importance of proper categorization for future posts. The conversation highlights the nature of the motion as simple harmonic due to the absence of dissipative forces.
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Hi. I have a problem about rolling motion. Suppose that I have a large hollow cylinder. A smaller solid cylinder is embedded inside the larger hollow cylinder.
http://www.geocities.com/andre_pradhana/cylinderkendro2.JPG
When I positioned the cylinder on a flat ramp like the picture below:
http://www.geocities.com/andre_pradhana/cylinderkendro5.JPG
The cylinder will start oscillating back and forth as the weight of the extra mass provide a torque, causing the cylinder to rotate.
http://www.geocities.com/andre_pradhana/cylinderkendro4.JPG
My question is, suppose that the value of \Beta initially was \pi/4 before the cylinder is released and start rolling, how can I calculate the time it takes before the \theta reaches a value of \pi (when the extra mass is directly above the point P)?

Suppose that the torque caused by the weight of the smaller cylinder is M_1gxsin\theta and the Moment of Inertia is: M_2R_2+0.5 M_1r_1^2. I can then figured out the equation for angular acceleration, which is: \displaystyle{\frac{M_1gxsin\theta}{ M_2R_2+0.5 M_1r_1^2}}

However, what I don’t know any formula that relates \theta as a function of time. How can I find the time it takes for the smaller cylinder to move from an initial displacement of \pi/4 befor the cylinder is released until the value of angular displacement is \pi’ i.e. when it’s directly above the point P, assuming that there is NO friction.

I know that there’s a formula relating \alpha\times\theta:
\omega_t^2=\omega_0^2+2\alpha\theta

Does it mean that if I integrate:
\int_ {\pi/4}^{\pi} \alpha d\theta

Will I get the value of 0.5\times\omega_t^2 when \theta is \pi? (with the assumption that the value of \omega_0 initially is 0 rad/s)? From dimensional analysis, I know that integrating that the integration will give me the value of constant\times\omega^2

If that’s true, then I can figured out the average angular acceleration to calculate the time it takes for the extra mass to travel from \pi/4 to \pi.

Is there another approach to solve this problem?

Thank you very much for your help...
 
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First of all, this is a homework problem which belongs in the Homework sections, not in the tutorial section. This thread will be moved.

Secondly, without dispersive forces, e.g. friction, one should obtain a simple harmonic motion, and \omega = \dot{\theta}, and \alpha = \dot{\omega}.
 
I have moved it to HW help.

kendro, in the future, please don't post threads in multiple forums, and place homework and textbook problems in the homework help section.
 
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