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## Main Question or Discussion Point

I suddenly have a problem with the famous Maxwell velocity distribution. The maximum of this bell-shaped curve is commonly interpreted as the most probable velocity for a particle (see for instance https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maxwell–Boltzmann_distribution: "

But according to Boltzmann's distribution the most probable energy for a particle is zero (decreasing exponential: P(E=Ei) = Exp(-Ei/kT)/Σ), so we should expect that the most probable velocity for a randomly picked particle is zero as well? but the probability of velocity zero is zero in the Maxwell distribution!

thank you in advance if you can enlighten me

*The most probable speed, vp, is the speed most likely to be possessed by any molecule..*")But according to Boltzmann's distribution the most probable energy for a particle is zero (decreasing exponential: P(E=Ei) = Exp(-Ei/kT)/Σ), so we should expect that the most probable velocity for a randomly picked particle is zero as well? but the probability of velocity zero is zero in the Maxwell distribution!

thank you in advance if you can enlighten me