Need Help Solving Physics Problem: Particle Moving on Frictionless Table

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on a physics problem involving a particle moving on a frictionless table, attached to a string being pulled through a hole. The user successfully applied the conservation of angular momentum to determine the new angular velocity after pulling the string, resulting in the formula w = (R_0/R)^2 * w_0. For calculating the work done while pulling the string, the user derived the tension in the string and set up the integral of force over distance, leading to the expression (1/2) * m * w_0^2 * (r^2 - r_0^2). The user confirmed that this result aligns with the work-energy theorem, indicating a correct understanding of the relationship between work and kinetic energy changes. Overall, the calculations and reasoning presented are consistent with the principles of physics involved in the problem.
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hi, I am having a little trouble with the last part of this problem.

A particle of mass m is moving on a frictionless horizontal table and is attached to a massless string, whose other end passes through a hole in the table, where i am holding it. Initially the particle is moving in a circle of radius R_0 with angular velocity w_0, but i now pull the string down through the hole until length R remains between the whole and the particle. (a) what's the particles angular velocity now? (b) assuming that I pull the string slowly that we can approximate the particles path by a circle of slowly shrinking radius, calculate the work i did pulling the string.

i was able to get part a by using conservation of angular momentum and i got

w= (R_0/R)^2*w_0

for part b i know that to find the work done i need to take the integral of F.dr, but i and not really sure how i would set that up.


thanks
 
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If you know the work energy theorem, there's an easy answer.

Otherwise:
What is the tension in the string when the mass is at radius r_i?
What force do you need to pull at to pull the mass in?
 
ok I got the tension to be
(m*v^2)/r_0 = m*r_0*w_0^2 = F

so the i took the intagral of (F*dr) evaluated at r_0 to r and got (1/2)*m*w_0^2(r^2 - r_0^2)

is this right? because change in KE = work and for change in KE i get

(1/2)*m[ (r*w)^2 - (r_0 *w_0) ^2] , which is close to the formula i was expecting to get.
 
Looks good to me.
 
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