Consider the PDE:
[tex]2dz/dx[/tex] - [tex]dz/dy[/tex] = 0
How can I show that if f(u) is differentiable function of one variable, then the PDE above is satisfied by z = f(x +2y)?
Also, the change in variables t = x+2y, s=x reduces the above PDE to [tex]dz/dt[/tex] = 0. But how can I show this?
The Attempt at a Solution
I simply don't understand, these are my notes from class today and I want to understand while it's early... All I know is that this involves the chain rule.