Piano man
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Hi, I'm reading about particle disintegration at the moment and there's a step I don't follow.
I've got the following equation:
\tan\theta=\frac{v_0\sin\theta_0}{v_0\cos\theta_0+V} where \theta is the resultant angle in the Laboratory system and \theta_0 is the resultant angle in the Centre of Mass system.
Also given is v=V+v_0 which are respectively the velocity of a resulting particle in the L system, the velocity of the primary particle in the L system, and the velocity of the resulting particle in the C system.
Solving for \cos\theta_0 one should obtain
\cos\theta_0=-\frac{V}{v_0}\sin^2\theta \pm \cos\theta\sqrt{1-\frac{V^2\sin^2\theta}{v_0^2}}
but I've gotten \cos\theta_0=\frac{V}{v_0}(\cos\theta-1)+\cos\theta
from the substitution \sin\theta_0=\sin\theta\left(\frac{V+v_0}{v_0}\right) which seems geometrically sound.
Can anyone see where that other equation comes from for \cos\theta_0?
Thanks.
I've got the following equation:
\tan\theta=\frac{v_0\sin\theta_0}{v_0\cos\theta_0+V} where \theta is the resultant angle in the Laboratory system and \theta_0 is the resultant angle in the Centre of Mass system.
Also given is v=V+v_0 which are respectively the velocity of a resulting particle in the L system, the velocity of the primary particle in the L system, and the velocity of the resulting particle in the C system.
Solving for \cos\theta_0 one should obtain
\cos\theta_0=-\frac{V}{v_0}\sin^2\theta \pm \cos\theta\sqrt{1-\frac{V^2\sin^2\theta}{v_0^2}}
but I've gotten \cos\theta_0=\frac{V}{v_0}(\cos\theta-1)+\cos\theta
from the substitution \sin\theta_0=\sin\theta\left(\frac{V+v_0}{v_0}\right) which seems geometrically sound.
Can anyone see where that other equation comes from for \cos\theta_0?
Thanks.