Please let me know if I did anything wrong on this thermo problem

  • Thread starter Thread starter RagincajunLA
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Thermo
RagincajunLA
Messages
19
Reaction score
0
I have a homework problem that I completed but I am not sure if it is correct. I was wondering if you guys could let me know if my thought process is correct of if I need to modify my solution. The problem is:

An adiabatic and rigid open vessel contains 4 kg of air at 300 K and has a volume of 1m^3. Air at 450 K and 400 kPa is entering the vessel at a rate of 0.10 kg/s. Assume the air is calorimetrically perfect ideal gas (CPIG) with constant specific heat ratio (k) of 1.40. What is the instantaneous rate of extensive energy increase in the vessel?

I started off by completing a foundational energy balance of

\frac{dE}{dt}=\frac{dU}{dt}+\frac{dKE}{dt}+\frac{dPE}{dt}=\frac{dU}{dt}=\dot{m}_{in}T_{in}

Since this is a CPIG, its enthalpy can be simplified to h_{in}in=c_{p}T_{in} and the constant pressure specific heat can be simplified to c_{p}=\frac{kR}{k-1}. By using all this, I get a final expression of

\frac{dE}{dt}=\frac{dU}{dt}=\frac{\dot{m}kRT_{in}}{k-1}

where Tin is the temperature of the incoming air.

For some reason I felt like I left some stuff out of the problem. For instance, I wasn't sure if I needed to use the pressure of the incoming air, the mass of the air in the control volume, or the volume of the control volume. Please let me know If I completed this problem correctly or steer me in the right direction. Thank you
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
.Yes, you have completed the problem correctly. You do not need to use the pressure of the incoming air, the mass of the air in the control volume, or the volume of the control volume. The only variables you need to use are the rate of mass flow of the incoming air, the constant specific heat ratio, and the temperature of the incoming air.
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top