Logarythmic
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If I have a point mass that experiences a force
\vec{F}(\vec{r}) = - \frac{k}{r^2} \vec{e_r} -mg \vec{e_z}
is it correct that the potential is
V = - \frac{k}{r} + mgz
??
\vec{F}(\vec{r}) = - \frac{k}{r^2} \vec{e_r} -mg \vec{e_z}
is it correct that the potential is
V = - \frac{k}{r} + mgz
??