pasmith said:Your proof doesn't work: at one point you conclude that U(f^2,P) - L(f^2,P) = 0 which is not generally the case: consider f(x) = x on [a,b].
Artusartos said:Thanks, but if U(f^2,P) \leq B^2(b-a) and L(f^2,P) \geq B^2(b-a) then why aren't they equal?