Proof that if a polynomial has a complex zero it's conjugate is also a zero

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If P(x) is a polynomial with real coefficients and z is a complex zero, then its complex conjugate \bar{z} is also a zero. This is proven by taking the conjugate of the polynomial equation P(z) = 0 and applying properties of complex conjugates. The left-hand side simplifies to P(\bar{z}), while the right-hand side remains zero. Therefore, it follows that P(\bar{z}) = 0, confirming that \bar{z} is indeed a zero of the polynomial. This demonstrates the relationship between complex zeros and their conjugates in polynomials with real coefficients.
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Homework Statement



If P(x) is a polynomial with real coefficients, then if z is a complex zero of P(x), then the complex conjugate \bar{z} is also a zero of P(x).

Homework Equations



Book provides a hint: assume that z is a zero for P(x)=a_{n}x^{n}+a_{n-1}x^{n-1}+...+a_{1}x+a_{0} and use the fact that \bar{z}=z if z is real (since every real can be written as a complex number with a zero imaginary part) and that \overline{z+w}=\bar{z}+\bar{w} and \overline{z*w}=\bar{z}*\bar{w} for all complex numbers.

The Attempt at a Solution



Well, it is proven for any real since the complex conjugate of a real number is that same number.

I'm lost from here.
 
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mindauggas said:

Homework Statement



If P(x) is a polynomial with real coefficients, then if z is a complex zero of P(x), then the complex conjugate \bar{z} is also a zero of P(x).

Homework Equations



Book provides a hint: assume that z is a zero for P(x)=a_{n}x^{n}+a_{n-1}x^{n-1}+...+a_{1}x+a_{0} and use the fact that \bar{z}=z if z is real (since every real can be written as a complex number with a zero imaginary part) and that \overline{z+w}=\bar{z}+\bar{w} and \overline{z*w}=\bar{z}*\bar{w} for all complex numbers.

The Attempt at a Solution



Well, it is proven for any real since the complex conjugate of a real number is that same number.

I'm lost from here.

Well, if z is a zero of P(x), then a_{n}z^{n}+a_{n-1}z^{n-1}+...+a_{1}z+a_{0} = 0.

Now take the conjugate of both sides.

For the LHS, use the rules they mentioned to systematically simplify the expression till you get it to: a_{n}{\bar{z}}^{n}+a_{n-1}{\bar{z}}^{n-1}+...+a_{1}{\bar{z}}+a_{0}. You'll need to apply \overline{z+w}=\bar{z}+\bar{w} first on the entire polynomial, followed by \overline{z*w}=\bar{z}*\bar{w} on each term and finally, "\bar{z}=z if z is real" on the real coefficients.

For the RHS, the conjugate of 0 is of course 0.

You've now established P(\bar{z}) = 0 and you're done.
 
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I deleted a question that was here since I misunderstood the post.
 
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