Prove that an element is algebraic over a field extension

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that if an element \( v \) is algebraic over \( K(u) \) and transcendental over \( K \), then \( u \) must be algebraic over \( K(v) \). The key argument involves the isomorphism \( K(u,v) \cong K(u)[x]/(f) \) and the relationship between the degrees of field extensions. The user concludes that since \( [K(u,v):K] \) is finite and \( [K(v):K] \) is infinite, it follows that \( [K(u):K] \) must also be infinite, leading to the conclusion that \( u \) is transcendental over \( K \), thus establishing the required algebraic relationship.

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  • Understanding of field extensions and algebraic elements
  • Familiarity with transcendental and algebraic numbers
  • Knowledge of polynomial rings and quotient fields
  • Experience with isomorphism theorems in field theory
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  • Learn about the isomorphism theorems and their applications in algebra
  • Explore polynomial rings and their role in defining algebraic elements
  • Investigate the implications of finite and infinite degree extensions
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Homework Statement


Let F|K be a field extension. If v e F is algebraic over K(u) for some u e F and v is transcendental over K, then u is algebraic over K(v).

Homework Equations


v transcendental over K implies K(v) iso to K(x).
Know also that there exists f e K(u)[x] with f(v) = 0.

The Attempt at a Solution


Want to show that there exists h e K(v)[x] with h(u) = 0.
I'm trying to find this directly since I don't see a contrapositive proof working out. I feel like I should use v alg|K(u) to get that K(u)(v) \cong K(u)[x]/(f) though I'm not sure how to get to that h in K(v)[x]. Somehow pass to that quotient field and show that u is a root of some remainder polynomial of f?
 
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Hint: K(u,v) is finite over K(u).
 
Thanks for the help, morphism.

So then I have [K(u,v):K] = [K(u,v):K(v)][K(v):K] = [K(u,v):K(u)][K(u):K] = n[K(u):K]. Since v trans|K, [K(v):K] is inf, and by equality [K(u):K] must be inf. But this means that u is trans|K, so there is an isomorphism from K(u) → K(v) mapping u → v. But this implies u is alg|K(v). Is that right, or did I get off track somewhere?
 
My only objection is to the sentence "But this implies u is alg|K(v)."

How did you arrive at this conclusion?
 

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