Proving Increasing Function: f'(x)=f(x) for all x

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that a function \( f : \mathbb{R} \to (0, \infty) \) with the property \( f'(x) = f(x) \) for all \( x \) is an increasing function. It is established that if \( f'(x) > 0 \) for all \( x \) in an interval, then \( f \) is strictly increasing on that interval. The conclusion drawn is that since \( f'(x) = f(x) \) and \( f(x) > 0 \), it follows that \( f \) is indeed increasing for all \( x \).

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of calculus, specifically derivatives and their implications on function behavior.
  • Knowledge of the Mean Value Theorem and its application in proving function properties.
  • Familiarity with the concept of exponential functions and their derivatives.
  • Basic understanding of the real number system and intervals.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of exponential functions, particularly \( e^x \) and its derivative.
  • Learn about the Mean Value Theorem and how it applies to proving monotonicity of functions.
  • Explore differential equations, focusing on first-order linear equations like \( f' = f \).
  • Investigate the implications of \( f'(x) = f(x) \) in various contexts, including growth models in mathematics and biology.
USEFUL FOR

Students studying calculus, mathematicians interested in function analysis, and educators teaching concepts of derivatives and increasing functions.

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Homework Statement



Let f : R(real numbers) (arrow) (0,infinity) have the property that f ' (x) = f (x) for all x. Show that f is an increasing functions for all x.

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I know that if f ' (x) > 0 , where all of x belongs to a,b (not bounded) then f is strictly increasing on [a,b].

So i need to show that f(x) > 0 maybe?

Any help/guidelines would be much appreciated.
 
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