Proving \Phi = 1 / r satisfies \nabla^2\Phi=0 in Cartesian coordinates

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Homework Statement



Using Cartesian coordinates show that \Phi = 1 / r satisfies \nabla^2\Phi=0 for r not equals to 0.

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The Attempt at a Solution



I tried to let r = x+y+z, then \nabla \Phi = ( \frac{1}{r^2} , \frac{1}{r^2}, \frac{1}{r^2}), but \nabla . \nabla \Phiis obviously not zero
 
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You didn't do the differentiation correctly. What is the partial derivative of 1/r with respect to x?
 
..and r^2=x^2+y^2+z^2 would work better too...
 
There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...
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