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## Homework Statement

Prove

[tex]\int_{n\pi}^{(n+1)\cdot \pi} \frac{sin(x)}{x} dx = (-1)^n \cdot a_n[/tex]

where [tex]a_n = \int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{sin(x)}{n\cdot pi x} dx[/tex]

and [tex]n \geq 0[/tex]

## The Attempt at a Solution

My Question is how I do prove that the left side equals the right side? Writting their respective Riemann sums?

Sincerely Yours

Hummingbird