QM: 1D Potential Well Spring - Energy Levels

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RJLiberator
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Homework Statement


1D Potential V(x) = mw^2x^2/2, part of a harmonic oscillator.
Suppose that the spring can only be stretched, so that the potential becomes V=infinity for x<0. What are the energy levels of this system?

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution



I argued my way though this problem by the following:
We know that V(x) = infinity
V(0) = 0
V(x) = 0 otherwise

From our typical energy levels we know E_n = ħw(n+1/2) for n=0,1,2,3,...

But there is a barrier at x =0. Therefore we need x=0 to have E=0.
Energy levels are thus:
E_n = ħw(n+1/2) with n=1,3,5,7,...

One can see this though the wave function graphs: https://i.stack.imgur.com/rb340.gif

Is that argued properly? Did I find the right solution?
 
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BvU said:
What are the boundary conditions at ##x=0## ?
I thought it was V(0) = 0. Did I interpret this incorrectly? Since the spring can only be stretched and not compressed?
 
I mean the conditions imposed on the solution . You want to make a distinction between the independent variable ##x## and the solution ##\ \psi(x) \ ## that has to satisfy a second order equation (##\ {\mathcal H}\psi = E\psi\ ## in your case) plus two boundary conditions.
 
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I don't want to confuse you, though: your line of thinking is correct; it's just the wording that is unfortunate:
The solution for x < 0 is ##\ \Psi(x) = 0\ ## and at ##\ x=0 \ ## the boundary condition is that the ##\ \Psi \ ## has to be continuous.

The first derivative does not have to be continuous at ##\ x=0 \ ## because the potential function isn't continuous either (I silently hope a theoretician will improve on this somewhat).

At the turning point (Where ##\ V(x) = E\ ##) the situation is different and both ##\ \Psi \ ## and its first derivative have to be continuous.
 
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@BvU sorry for not getting back to you earlier in this thread -- but your help was spot on. It was a much more basic question then I assumed and I got full credit for it, partially thanks to your guidance.
Cheers.
 
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