QM, central potential, system collapse

WarnK
Messages
30
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Homework Equations


(this is ~Fetter & Walecka Quantum theory of many-particle systems problem 1.2b)
Homogeneous system of spin 1/2 particles, potential V.
Expectation value of Hamiltonian in the non interacting ground state is
E^{(0)} + E^{(1)} = 2 \sum_k^{k_F} \frac{\hbar^2 k^2}{2m} + 1/2 \sum_{k \lambda}^{k_F} \sum_{k' \lambda'}^{k_F} \big[ <k\lambda k'\lambda'|V|k\lambda k'\lambda'> - <k\lambda k'\lambda'|V|k'\lambda' k\lambda>\big]

Assume V is central and spin independant
V(|x_1-x_2|) < 0 for all |x_1-x_2|
The intergral of |V(x)| is finite

Prove that the system will collapse.
Hint: start from ( E^{(0)} + E^{(1)} ) / N as a function of density

The Attempt at a Solution



If the energy per particle, ( E^{(0)} + E^{(1)} ) / N, is reduced when the density increases (which I guess means that N increases) the system will collapse.
But how do I show that, I don't see what I can do.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
If the particle number increases, the sums might have a few more terms, how does that reduce the number of particles?
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top