chrisd
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I have read similar threads about this problem but I wasn't able to make progress using them.
Consider an infinite square-well potential of width a, but with the coordinate system shifted so that the infinite potential barriers lie at x=\frac{-a}{2} and x=\frac{a}{2}.
Solve the Schrodinger equation for this case to calculate the normalized wave function \psin(x) and the corresponding energies En
Time Independent Schrodinger Equation (V(x)=0 within the well)
-\hbar2\frac{1}{2m} (\frac{∂}{∂x})2\psi=E\psi
Skipping ahead to the general solution for \psi(x) , I get:
\psi(x) = Aeikx + Be-ikx, k = \frac{\sqrt{2mE}}{\hbar}
Using the boundary conditions,
\psi(\frac{a}{2})=Aeika/2 + Be-ika/2=0
\psi(\frac{-a}{2})=Ae-ika/2 + Beika/2=0,
together with some substitution I am able to prove that,
k =\frac{\pi}{a}n
En =(\frac{n\pi\hbar}{a})2\frac{1}{2m}
which I believe to be correct for infinite square well.
I run into trouble trying to solve for the constants A and B. My approach was to try and normalize the wavefunction and then use substitution to solve for A or B, but I can't seem to get anywhere after a certain point.
I would expect to get cosines for n=1,3,5... and sines for n=2,4,6... based on what I know about the shape of the wavefunction, but I am unsure how to prove this mathemetically.
Any tips would be appreciated.
Homework Statement
Consider an infinite square-well potential of width a, but with the coordinate system shifted so that the infinite potential barriers lie at x=\frac{-a}{2} and x=\frac{a}{2}.
Solve the Schrodinger equation for this case to calculate the normalized wave function \psin(x) and the corresponding energies En
Homework Equations
Time Independent Schrodinger Equation (V(x)=0 within the well)
-\hbar2\frac{1}{2m} (\frac{∂}{∂x})2\psi=E\psi
The Attempt at a Solution
Skipping ahead to the general solution for \psi(x) , I get:
\psi(x) = Aeikx + Be-ikx, k = \frac{\sqrt{2mE}}{\hbar}
Using the boundary conditions,
\psi(\frac{a}{2})=Aeika/2 + Be-ika/2=0
\psi(\frac{-a}{2})=Ae-ika/2 + Beika/2=0,
together with some substitution I am able to prove that,
k =\frac{\pi}{a}n
En =(\frac{n\pi\hbar}{a})2\frac{1}{2m}
which I believe to be correct for infinite square well.
I run into trouble trying to solve for the constants A and B. My approach was to try and normalize the wavefunction and then use substitution to solve for A or B, but I can't seem to get anywhere after a certain point.
I would expect to get cosines for n=1,3,5... and sines for n=2,4,6... based on what I know about the shape of the wavefunction, but I am unsure how to prove this mathemetically.
Any tips would be appreciated.
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