Quantum Mechanics - Ladder Operators

Tangent87
Messages
146
Reaction score
0
I'm trying to show that N=a^\dagger a and K_r=\frac{a^\dagger^r a^r}{r!} commute. So basically I need to show [a^\dagger^r a^r,a^\dagger a]=0. I'm not quite sure what to do, I've tried using [a,a^\dagger] in a few places but so far haven't had much success.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Tangent87 said:
I'm trying to show that N=a^\dagger a and K_r=\frac{a^\dagger^r a^r}{r!} commute. So basically I need to show [a^\dagger^r a^r,a^\dagger a]=0. I'm not quite sure what to do, I've tried using [a,a^\dagger] in a few places but so far haven't had much success.

What's [AB,CD] equal to?
 
latentcorpse said:
What's [AB,CD] equal to?

Ah, thanks latentcorpse!

[AB,CD]=A[B,CD]+[A,CD]B=A[B,C]D+AC[B,D]+[A,C]DB+C[A,D]B

Also, if I want to show \sum_{r=0}^\infty (-1)^r K_r=|0><0| is it sufficient to show \sum_{r=0}^\infty (-1)^r K_r|n>=|0><0|n>=0?
 
redundant
 
Tangent87 said:
Ah, thanks latentcorpse!

[AB,CD]=A[B,CD]+[A,CD]B=A[B,C]D+AC[B,D]+[A,C]DB+C[A,D]B

Also, if I want to show \sum_{r=0}^\infty (-1)^r K_r=|0><0| is it sufficient to show \sum_{r=0}^\infty (-1)^r K_r|n>=|0><0|n>=0?

No wait of course it's not, what am I thinking!
 
Hi, I had an exam and I completely messed up a problem. Especially one part which was necessary for the rest of the problem. Basically, I have a wormhole metric: $$(ds)^2 = -(dt)^2 + (dr)^2 + (r^2 + b^2)( (d\theta)^2 + sin^2 \theta (d\phi)^2 )$$ Where ##b=1## with an orbit only in the equatorial plane. We also know from the question that the orbit must satisfy this relationship: $$\varepsilon = \frac{1}{2} (\frac{dr}{d\tau})^2 + V_{eff}(r)$$ Ultimately, I was tasked to find the initial...
##|\Psi|^2=\frac{1}{\sqrt{\pi b^2}}\exp(\frac{-(x-x_0)^2}{b^2}).## ##\braket{x}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{\pi b^2}}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}dx\,x\exp(-\frac{(x-x_0)^2}{b^2}).## ##y=x-x_0 \quad x=y+x_0 \quad dy=dx.## The boundaries remain infinite, I believe. ##\frac{1}{\sqrt{\pi b^2}}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}dy(y+x_0)\exp(\frac{-y^2}{b^2}).## ##\frac{2}{\sqrt{\pi b^2}}\int_0^{\infty}dy\,y\exp(\frac{-y^2}{b^2})+\frac{2x_0}{\sqrt{\pi b^2}}\int_0^{\infty}dy\,\exp(-\frac{y^2}{b^2}).## I then resolved the two...

Similar threads

Back
Top