Quick Integration Question w/ e

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The integral of 1/e^z dz is correctly evaluated as -e^-z + C, not ln(e^z). The confusion arose from misunderstanding the properties of the exponential function and its antiderivative. The TI-89 calculator provided the correct solution, emphasizing that the antiderivative of e^-z is indeed -e^-z. To verify, differentiating ln(e^z) yields 1, confirming the distinction. Understanding the integration of exponential functions is crucial for solving differential equations accurately.
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Quick Integration Question w/ "e"

Hey folks,

On my calc homework tonight, I have to solve the integral \int (1/e^z) dz as part of my differential equation. Anywho, I thought the answer to that was ln (e^z) = z but my TI-89 claims that it's really -e^-z.

Could someone please tell me which of us is correct, and more importantly, why? I was under the impression that the antiderivative of e was simply itself if there was no inner function (and since z is just a variable, I don't think there is).

Thank you!
 
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I'm a little confused by your question but:

\int \frac{1}{e^z}dz = \int e^{-z} dz = -e^{-z} + \mathcal{C}
 
Zurtex said:
I'm a little confused by your question but:

\int \frac{1}{e^z}dz = \int e^{-z} dz = -e^{-z} + \mathcal{C}

Oh, wow. I didn't even think of it like that, thank's a lot! Yeah, the question does seem odd now that I know the answer.
 
Your calc. was right this time, your answer was incorrect. You should remember that you can differentiate to check and D_x(ln(e^z)) is just 1.
 
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