getcarter said:
original function is z \overline{} -n (e \overline{} -z -1 ) \overline{} -1
So, at what points does exp(-z) become equal to 1 (apart from z = 0)?
The residue at zero is difficult to compute directly via standard formulas. In fact, the series expansion of 1/(exp(-z) - 1) defines the so-called Bernouilli numbers for which you cannot write down a closed formula . But this exercise seeks a different expression.
If you first solve the first part of the problem and compute all the residues except at z = 0, you can consider the contour integral along a big circle of radius R and consider te limit of R to infinity.
Then you look at the limit of R to infinity of that contour integral. You can compute that easily. Then you know that this is also given as 2 pi i times the sum of all the residues inside the contour. You will see that you can compute the sum of all the residues that you've computed in terms of a special function. The residue at zero is the missing residue that you would have to add to that sum to get the limit of the contour integral.
You can also understand this method in terms of the so-called "residue at infinity". Suppose you have a contour integral along a contour that encoses the origin. Then, if you use the substitution z = 1/w in that contour integral you get a contour integral in the w-plane plane. However, the poles that were inside the contour in the z-plane are now outside the contour in the w-plane and vice versa. The sum of the residues for both functions must be the same. This gives the relation:
Sum of residues of f(z) = sum of residues of 1/w^2 f(1/w) (1)
On the left hand side we're summing over residues that are inside the contour in the z-plane, on the r..h.s. we take the residues that are inside the contour in the w-plane which correspond to the poles in the z-plane that are outside the contour.
Now you can formally compute the residue at a pole of 1/w^2 f(1/w) by considering a small contour around a pole. If we apply the transformation z to 1/z we find that it is given by
minus the residue of f(z) at thae pole. That minus sign comes from
d(1/z) = -1/z^2 dz while the counterclockwise contour stays counterclockwise. If we encircle the origin, the orientation of the contour also changes, that's why we did not get the minus sign in formula (1).
So, Eq(1) seems to tell you that the sum of all the residues inside and outside the contour is equal to zero. But this can't be right, because then the limit of a contour integral along a circle of radius R would alwayus have to be zero. The mistake here is that on the right hand side of (1) there can be a residue at w = 0 and that doesn't correspond to any residue at some finite z. Of course w = 0 corresponds to z is infinity so a residue at w = 0 should be a residue at infinity in some sense. We know that at nonzero w you get minus the residue of f(z) at the corresponding z.
So, that's where the definition of the residue at infinity as the residue at w = 0 of -1/w^2 f(1/w) comes from. This then makes the sum of all the residues zero, if we also include the residue at infinity. Or, put differently, the residue at infinity is minus the sum of all the residues excluding the residue at infinity. And that you can compute by considering the limit of R to infinity of the contour integral over a circle of radius R. That limit can be seen as minus the residue at infinity.