Resolving the Paradox: Net External Work in a Falling Ball-Earth System

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In the discussion about net external work in a falling ball-Earth system, the main point of confusion revolves around the relationship between external forces and energy changes. While it is noted that there are no external forces acting on the system, the kinetic energy of the ball increases as it falls, suggesting that work is done. The participant grapples with the concept that a lack of external work does not prevent the redistribution of internal energy within the system. They also draw a parallel to a spring-block system, questioning whether work is zero when the initial and final velocities are the same. Ultimately, the discussion highlights the need to clarify the distinction between external work and internal energy transformations.
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Homework Statement


Consider a system of a ball and the Earth. The ball is held at rest at an initial height, then dropped. Derive an expression for the net external work by external forces on BE.

Homework Equations


W = Fx
W = deltaK
V = mgh
K = (1/2)mv^2

The Attempt at a Solution


My confusion from this arises from the following: there are no external forces on the system. Therefore, the net external work of the system should be zero. However, the kinetic energy of the system changes and the potential energy decreases. Because the kinetic energy of the system increases, there should be work done because of W=deltaK. Clearly I'm guilty of a logical fallacy somewhere along the lines, but I'm unsure where.
 
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Just because I think this is intrinsically related: a hand pulls a block connected to a spring away from a wall to which the other end of the spring is attached. The initial and final velocity of the ball is zero. Kinetic energy doesn't change as a result. Is the work then zero?

I feel like I'm missing something fundamental here.
 
That no external work is done on the system does not mean that the system cannot redistribute its internal energy.
 
Kindly see the attached pdf. My attempt to solve it, is in it. I'm wondering if my solution is right. My idea is this: At any point of time, the ball may be assumed to be at an incline which is at an angle of θ(kindly see both the pics in the pdf file). The value of θ will continuously change and so will the value of friction. I'm not able to figure out, why my solution is wrong, if it is wrong .
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